{"schema":"vela.problem-packet.v0.1","problem":492,"statement":"Let $A=\\{a_1<a_2<\\cdots\\}\\subseteq \\mathbb{N}$ be infinite such that $a_{i+1}/a_i\\to 1$. For any $x\\geq a_1$ let\\[f(x) = \\frac{x-a_i}{a_{i+1}-a_i}\\in [0,1),\\]where $x\\in [a_i,a_{i+1})$. Is it true that, for almost all $\\alpha$, the sequence $f(\\alpha n)$ is uniformly distributed in $[0,1)$?","status":"solved","seam":"raw","closureRoutes":[],"obligations":[],"attestations":[],"attempts":[],"velaLean":[],"oeis":[],"generated_note":"derived view; the signed event log is the source of truth (vela check / vela reproduce)"}