For $x_1,\dots ,x_n\in [-1,1]$ let$$l_k(x)=\frac{{\prod }_{i\ne k}(x-x_i)}{{\prod }_{i\ne k}(x_k-x_i)},$$which are such that $l_k(x_k)=1$ and $l_k(x_i)=0$ for $i\ne k$.Let $x_1,x_2,\dots \in [-1,1]$ be an infinite sequence, and let$$L_n(x)=\sum _{1\le k\le n}|l_k(x)|,$$where each $l_k(x)$ is defined above with respect to $x_1,\dots ,x_n$.Must there exist $x\in (-1,1)$ such that$$L_n(x)>\frac{2}{\pi }\log n-O(1)$$for infinitely many $n$?Is it true that$$\underset{n\to \infty }{\mathrm{limsup}}\frac{L_n(x)}{\log n}\ge \frac{2}{\pi }$$for almost all $x\in (-1,1)$?