Define $f:\mathbb{N}\to \mathbb{N}$ by $f(n)=n/2$ if $n$ is even and $f(n)=\frac{3n+1}{2}$ if $n$ is odd.Given any integer $m\ge 1$ does there exist $k\ge 1$ such that $f^{(k)}(m)=1$?

gpt-erdos · GPT-5.2 Pro + Deep Research · unverified

Your $f$ is exactly the “shortcut” form of the **Collatz $ (3n+1) $ map**:

llm-hunter · gpt pro 5.2 · unverified

1 LLM attack(s) recorded (gpt pro 5.2); unverified.