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Is it true that for every there are infinitely many primes such that the largest prime divisor ofis ?

Worked, still open.

number theory · open · formalized (Lean) · 0 attempts

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vela reproduce examples/erdos-problems

evidence

unverified AI candidates (2)

gpt-erdos · GPT-5.2 Pro + Deep Research · unverified

Let $P(n)$ denote the largest prime divisor of $n$. Your condition [ P\left(\prod_{i=0}^{k}(p^2+i)\right)=p ] is equivalent to [ P(p^2+i)\le p\quad\text{for every }i=1,2,\dots,k, ] since the $i=0$ factor is (p^2), so $p$ certainly divides the product and hence the largest prime divisor is (\ge p).

candidate solution ↗

llm-hunter · gpt pro 5.2 · unverified

1 LLM attack(s) recorded (gpt pro 5.2); unverified.

candidate solution ↗

formal

AMS 11 · open (literature)

theorem erdos_383 : answer(sorry) ↔
    ∀ k, {p : ℕ | p.Prime ∧ Nat.maxPrimeFac (∏ i ∈ Finset.Icc 0 k, (p ^ 2 + i)) = p}.Infinite
formal-conjectures/383.lean ↗

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open

notary

vela reproduce examples/erdos-problems
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