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Let be a set of cardinality and be a function from the finite subsets of to such that for all . Must there exist an infinite that is independent - that is, for all finite we have ?

Worked, still open.

set theory · open · formalized (Lean) · 0 attempts

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vela reproduce examples/erdos-problems

evidence

unverified AI candidates (2)

gpt-erdos · GPT-5.2 Pro + Deep Research · unverified

In fact, your question is exactly **Erdős Problem #623**: given (|X|=\aleph_\omega) and (f:[X]^{<\omega}\to X) with (f(A)\notin A) for every finite $A$, must there be an infinite (Y\subseteq X) with (f(B)\notin Y) for all finite (B\subseteq Y)? The current status is listed as **OPEN**. ([Erdős Problems][1])

candidate solution ↗

llm-hunter · gpt pro 5.2 · unverified

1 LLM attack(s) recorded (gpt pro 5.2); unverified.

candidate solution ↗

formal

AMS 3 · open (literature)

theorem erdos_623 : answer(sorry) ↔ ∀ (X : Type u) (hX : #X = ℵ_ ω)
    (f : Finset X → X), (∀ A : Finset X, f A ∉ A) →
    (∃ Y : Set X, Set.Infinite Y ∧ (∀ (B : Finset X), ↑B ⊆ Y → f B ∉ Y))
formal-conjectures/623.lean ↗

status

open

notary

vela reproduce examples/erdos-problems
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