Let $P (m)$ denote the greatest prime factor of $m$ . Is it true that, for any two primes $p, q$ , there exists some integer $n$ such that $P (n) = p$ and $P (n + 1) = q$ ?

Worked, still open.

number theory · solved · possible · 0 attempts

use this record

vela registry pull vfr_37aec80d874a0239

vela reproduce examples/erdos-problems

links

solved