We call $A\subset \mathbb{N}$ dissociated if ${\sum }_{n\in X}n\ne {\sum }_{m\in Y}m$ for all finite $X,Y\subset A$ with $X\ne Y$. Let $A\subset \mathbb{N}$ be an infinite set. We call $A$ proportionately dissociated if every finite $B\subset A$ contains a dissociated set of size $\gg |B|$.Is every proportionately dissociated set the union of a finite number of dissociated sets?