Let$$f(n)=\sum _{p<n}\frac{1}{n-p}.$$Is it true that$$\mathrm{liminf}f(n)=1$$and$$\mathrm{limsup}f(n)=\infty ?$$Is it true that $f(n)=o(\log \log n)$ for all $n$?

gpt-erdos · GPT-5.2 Pro + Deep Research · unverified

This is (essentially verbatim) **Erdős’s Problem #950**. Erdős wrote that it is *likely* that $ \liminf_{n\to\infty} f(n)=1,\qquad \limsup_{n\to\infty} f(n)=\infty, $ and he also asked whether perhaps (f(n)=o(\log\log n)). All of these are **open**. ([Rényi Institute][1])

llm-hunter · gpt pro 5.2 · unverified

1 LLM attack(s) recorded (gpt pro 5.2); unverified.